Erik
08/26/2020, 8:17 AM? as an expression suffix to coerce the expression to be of nullable type?
Examples:
var x = 1? -> inferred type = Int?, so no need to type var x: Int? = 1. Later you can always set x = null.
someQuery()? -> inferred type = nullable return type of someQuery(). If that function already returns a nullable type, then a linter warning should be shown that the ? suffix is redundant.Erik
08/26/2020, 8:17 AMErik
08/26/2020, 8:17 AMErik
08/26/2020, 8:17 AMCLOVIS
08/26/2020, 12:50 PMval foo: Something? = something()Erik
08/26/2020, 12:54 PMsomething() returns Something normallyCLOVIS
08/26/2020, 2:03 PM1?, "something"?), but for functions results it might look a little bit too much like ?.Erik
08/26/2020, 2:10 PMErik
08/26/2020, 2:11 PMErik
08/26/2020, 2:11 PMErik
08/26/2020, 2:11 PMHanno
08/26/2020, 2:36 PMCLOVIS
08/26/2020, 3:08 PM1 is, but if you want Int? you have to declare the type. For such examples, it's kind of like writing 1f instead of 1.toFloat(), it carries the same meaning but is much smaller.CLOVIS
08/26/2020, 3:09 PMHanno
08/26/2020, 3:17 PMYoussef Shoaib [MOD]
08/28/2020, 8:51 AMval <T: Any> T.nullable: T? get() = this